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Q&As
Section 23 of the Landlord and Tenant Act 1927 (LTA 1927) makes provision for methods of service of notices under LTA 1927. By section 66(4) of the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954 (LTA 1954), it is deemed also to apply to LTA 1954. LTA 1927, s 23 can therefore apply to the service of a section 26 notice (LTA 1954, s 26) by a tenant who wishes to bring his protected lease to an end. The benefit of reliance upon LTA 1927, s 23 is that it places the risk of non-delivery on the intended recipient. LTA 1927, s 23 provides that any notice shall be in writing and may be served on the person on whom it is to be served in one of four ways: • personally • by leaving it for
Q&As
The Landlord and Tenant Act 1987 (LTA 1987) gives such tenants the right of first refusal when the landlord wishes to make certain disposals of an interest in the reversion of residential premises. As the Q&A acknowledges, it is not necessary for the tenant to live in the flat for the rights under LTA 1987 to arise. A person is a qualifying tenant if he holds a tenancy of the flat other than one with the protection of other statutes set out in LTA 1987, s
Q&As
A landlord may serve a notice under section 8 of the Housing Act 1988 (HA 1988) seeking possession of an assured or an assured shorthold tenancy. The grounds that may be relied on are set out in HA 1988, Sch 2 Pt I, one of which (ground 8) is that: ‘Both at the date of the service of the notice under section 8 of this Act relating to the proceedings for possession and at the date of the hearing— [...] (b) if
Q&As
It is worth noting that the maximum number of trustees of land permitted by statute is four (section 34(2) of the Trustee Act 1925 and section 34(2) of the Law of Property Act 1925). Trustees of a trust of land hold as legal joint tenants, irrespective of the underlying beneficial interests. Therefore, when one trustee of land dies, his legal interest vests in his surviving co-trustees by survivorship. His personal representatives acquire no rights to the legal title (with one exception) and only acquire rights to the underlying beneficial title if the trustee also held an absolute beneficial interest as tenant in common. The personal representatives of a deceased trustee of land would only become involved if he had been the last trustee. In which case, his
Q&As
The validity and form of a tenant’s notice exercising an option to purchase the demised premises will always depend on the terms of the option and any particular conditions. In this Q&A, the first issue is on the true construction of the option, can the notice be served after the death of one or more of the joint landlord/trustees? Without reference to the full wording of the option, it is not possible to answer this Q&A. However, unless there is some indication to the contrary, or the option was personal to all of the joint landlord/trustees rather than only some of them (see Kennewell v Dye), it seems unlikely that a notice cannot be served after the death of one of them. The
Q&As
A landlord’s section 25 notice must be in the form prescribed by the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954, Part 2 (Notices) Regulations 2004, (SI 2004/1005). Pursuant to section 25(8) of the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954 (LTA 1954), a landlord’s unopposing section 25 notice must also include proposals as to the property comprised in the new tenancy (ie whether this is to be the whole
Q&As
In answering this Q&A, we have limited our research to cover settlement of small claims other than by way of a Part 36 settlement. In conducting our research we have focussed on whether a consent order needs to be filed when settling a claim in the small claims track. The small claims track is governed by CPR 27 and CPR PD 27, however, this should be read in conjunction with the court guides. For information on the small claims track generally, see Practice Note: Small claims track—case management. CPR 27.2 stipulates the rules in the CPR which do not apply to small claims. It should be noted that Part 36 (offers to settle)
Q&As
For the purposes of this Q&A we have: • assumed the ‘details’ requested including personal data as defined under applicable data protection law (for further information, see Practice Note: Key definitions under the DPA 1998) • focused exclusively on the position in respect of personal data under the current Data Protection Act 1998 (DPA 1998), and • not commented on the position under the General Data Protection Regulation, Regulation (EU) 2016/679 (which applies from 25 May 2018 and will replace current UK data protection law) and/or the Data Protection Bill. For further information, see Practice Notes: Introduction to the EU GDPR and UK GDPR and The Data Protection Act 2018 As explained in Practice Note: Non-disclosure exemptions under the DPA 1998, the DPA 1998 requires personal data to be processed in accordance
Q&As
The Data Protection Act 2018 (DPA 2018) provides for certain exemptions to the general data protection rules established by Assimilated Regulation (EU) 2016/679, the United Kingdom General Data Protection Regulation (UK GDPR) and the DPA 2018, some of which may be applicable where a health and/or social care body wishes to share personal data with another such body. Key areas to consider are the health care and social care exemptions in DPA 2018 Sch 3, Pts 2–3. In brief, these allow derogations from data subject rights under the UK GDPR where: i) lack of derogation would likely cause serious harm to the individual (but note that this exemption applies only to the data subject's right of access); or ii) personal data has been requested by a person with parental responsibility
Q&As
This Q&A does not consider personal data sharing/transfers in relation to international transfers. For further guidance on international transfers, see Practice Note: UK GDPR and EU GDPR—transfers of personal data internationally and to international organisations. The answer to this Q&A will depend on whether the personal data is being shared between subsidiary companies in a controller to controller or controller to processor relationship. Determining roles It is vital that organisations involved in the sharing or other processing of personal data understand and identify their roles (eg processor, independent controller or joint controller) under Regulation (EU) 2016/679, the General Data Protection Regulation (the GDPR). The role each party plays will establish the obligations of each party under data protection law and plays a vital part in allowing parties to identify the contractual and other risk mitigation steps they should